a. 
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                If so, then they will not be necessary, because Christ will be
                there, in the Kingdom, bearing in his own body the marks of his crucifixion (Zec
                13:6; Joh 20:25-27; Rev 5:6). What better commemoration, what better
                demonstration, of God's work of salvation could be imagined? 
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                b. 
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                Bread and wine are a sufficient and proper memorial
                (remembrance) of the sacrifice of Christ (Luk 22:16-19; 1Co 11:23-25). Surely,
                also, the "marriage supper of the Lamb" (or something very much like it, kept on
                an ongoing basis) will be a reasonable approximation of this feast in the
                Kingdom (Rev 19:7-9; Mat 22:2-4; Luk 14:15,16). 
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                c. 
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                If "commemorative" (ie, "look-back") sacrifices will be
                acceptable (or even commanded?) in the Kingdom, then why were they not still the
                standard for believers in 30-70 AD? And why does the writer to the Hebrews go to
                such lengths to make his case for a "waxed old/ready to vanish away" Temple (Heb
                8:13), along with all its services? 
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                There is a great incongruity in seeing animal sacrifices in
                the Kingdom as "demonstrations" of how God deals with "sin". On the one hand,
                there will already be all the evidence anyone could wish... in the tangible,
                physical, visible body of the glorified Lord Jesus Christ... for the one
                perfect, complete, final "sacrifice-to-end-all-sacrifices". On the other hand,
                (it is alleged) there will be a continuous procession of merely "demonstration"
                animal sacrifices which can never effectively accomplish anything (not even, as
                in the Law of Moses, to point to the Messiah who is yet to come, because... he
                is already there!) 
                 
                Secondly, if these Kingdom "sacrifices" are really only
                "demonstration", then what we seem to have, in Eze 40-48, is a strange
                disproportion of emphasis: 
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                I. 
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                a great deal of detail about buildings, priests, altars, and
                rituals -- with elaborate measurements -- all to sustain what is merely
                "demonstration", but... 
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                II. 
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                practically no detail about Christ's throne or city or
                administration, about the role the immortal "priests" (as opposed to mortal
                Jewish priests?) will play in that Kingdom, about the "Marriage supper of the
                Lamb" -- which will all be real, significant, and efficacious for all who
                participate! 
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                d. 
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                Gal 3:19: "The Law was added (only) until the Seed comes" --
                implying that, afterward, it would cease. There is a world of difference between
                words and laws and practices which are anticipatory (like the Law in OT times),
                and words and laws and practices which are retrospective (like the Breaking of
                Bread since then). The anticipatory ones are a "schoolmaster" (KJV) to lead to
                Christ: "So the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ that we might be
                justified by faith. Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the
                supervision of the law" (Gal 3:24,25). But is there really such a thing as a
                "schoolmaster" to lead us, or anyone, BACKWARD to the Law of Moses, and from
                thence -- through that Law -- forward to Christ again? If so, why would Paul in
                Galatians have some rather critical things to say about those who would lead
                Christian believers backward to the Law again? 
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                Is there, since we are on the subject, any difference between
                a "looking-forward" type and a "looking-backward" symbol?  
                 
                It would seem that "looking-forward" types -- like the
                sacrifices and rituals of the Law of Moses -- seem to have been designed by God
                to approximate as closely as possible the actual antitype, or fulfillment, when
                he/it comes. Also, the sacrifices of the Law were efficacious, in the sense that
                they were plainly stated to be for "sin" or for "cleansing". In other words,
                those who knowledgeably and in faith offered the sacrifices or followed the
                rituals were expressing their trust in God and their hope in the One He would
                send, who would then render all such types obsolete. But in the meanwhile the
                Mosaic sacrifice itself was real, and was the medium through which, in faith,
                sins might be forgiven. 
                 
                But the "looking-backward" symbol (like the bread and wine of
                the memorial supper) seems to be designed by God only to recall or remember, but
                not to look like or imitate the actual deed -- i.e., the literal sacrifice of
                Christ. And the bread and wine are not themselves the means to achieve
                forgiveness of sins. They merely remind partakers of that means. 
                 
                The reason for this distinction is logical and fairly obvious
                (in fact, it is the subtext of all the Letter to the Hebrews). Would not the
                killing of any animal and the pouring out of its blood and the consuming of its
                flesh -- by more closely reproducing what was literally done to and by and with
                Jesus -- appear to be an effective and sufficient substitute for the real
                thing? 
                 
                So why should the literal animal sacrifices cease with the
                perfect sacrifice of Christ? Based on the Hebrews letter, continual
                blood-shedding in the context of approach to God would tend, in the minds of
                some, to mitigate or even nullify altogether the wondrous and wonderful and
                unique blessing of the blood of Christ. 
                 
                Why is our commemoration of the body/blood of Christ done with
                bread/wine and not literal beef (steak, mutton, whatever) with its literal
                blood? Even if there is no direct Bible proof (is there?), it seems the answer
                is obvious: Because literal flesh and literal blood (of whatever animal, or
                human) would only tend to distract from, and lessen the appreciation of, HIS
                body/blood! Further, it might even look as though salvation were traceable, in
                whole or in part, to some source other than Christ. 
                 
                We rightly disparage the Roman Catholic doctrine of
                transubstantiation not just because such a "priest" cannot turn literal bread
                into literal flesh, and literal wine into literal blood... but also because --
                even if he could -- such a "priest" would be offering the body and blood of
                Christ again and again, and such a practice would undermine the essence of
                Christ's sacrifice, and transfer some of its merit to the practitioner/magician
                instead! Might not the idea of literal animal sacrifice in the Kingdom be open
                to similar criticisms? 
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                e. 
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                Finally, Ezekiel says -- conclusively, it would seem -- that
                the animal sacrifices he describes are in fact "for sin" (Eze 43:19-26;
                45:17,22), which would seem -- all by itself -- to rule out the so-called
                "looking-back-to-Christ" rationale for such sacrifices in the Kingdom. 
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                1.  
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                The "Prince" of Eze 45; 46 was a mortal prince/ruler of
                Israel. How do we know this? Because (a) he offers sacrifice for his own sins
                (Eze 45:22; 46:10-12); (b) he is subject to death (Eze 46:17,18); and (c) he has
                a wife and sons (Eze 46:16), and (d) those sons will succeed him (Eze 45:8;
                46:18). None of this may reasonably apply to the glorified Lord! 
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                As to point (a) above, how could it be that the glorified
                Messiah will be the "Prince"? This would mean that, in offering sacrifices,
                Jesus would be serving the altar, which would be a shadow of himself (Heb
                13:10). "Shadow" and "substance" meet together, but the substance is made to
                serve the shadow? Surely this is the wrong way around! And surely the immortal
                Son of God would no longer need to offer sacrifice of any kind FOR
                HIMSELF! 
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                2.  
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                The priests of this Temple are mortal because: (a) they sweat
                (Eze 44:18); (b) they are commanded to drink no wine (Eze 44:21; ct Mat 26:29);
                (c) they die (Eze 44:22); and (d) they have no inheritance (Eze 44:28).
                 
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                3.  
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                This Temple has Levites who went/can go astray (Eze
                44:10-14). 
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                4.  
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                Ezekiel's temple vision is interspersed with exhortations to
                the house of Israel, not to Gentile believers: Eze 40:4; 44:6. In addition, the
                house of Israel is characterized as rebellious (?!): Eze 40:4; 44:6; 45:9.
                Contrast with Jer 31:31-34; 32:37-40; Eze 11:17-21; 36:24-28! (Will Israel in
                the Kingdom be "rebellious"?!) 
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                5.  
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                Eze 43:10-12: The prophecy is conditional: "IF they are
                ashamed..." So these verses may explain why Ezekiel's vision was never brought
                to reality as intended in the days of Ezra. The whole vision of Eze 40-48 may be
                seen as one more unfulfilled promise of God to Israel -- not unfulfilled because
                God is in any way slack concerning His promises, but unfulfilled because Israel
                was not capable of receiving its blessing. 
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                6.  
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                No uncircumcised person is allowed there (Eze 44:9). But what
                about Gentile saints, who are not necessarily circumcised? [If the point is that
                "circumcision" is that of the heart, and not of the flesh (i.e., not literal
                circumcision) -- then how does this impact the literal reading of the rest of
                Eze 40-48 in a future, or millennial, context?] 
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                7.  
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                Ezekiel's vision refers to "strangers" who have settled in the
                Land (Eze 47:22,23). This is very easy to relate to the time of the return from
                Babylon, but not so easy to relate to the Kingdom Age -- since the land of
                Israel is supposed to be reserved for the twelve (mortal) tribes of
                Israel. 
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                8.  
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                Eze 47:18 describes an eastern border at the Jordan River. Eze
                47:19 speaks of the "river" on the south, which is wadi El Arish, not Nile.
                These borders are consistent with the post-exilic Israel of Ezra's day, but
                inconsistent with the extent of the Kingdom as described in Gen 15:18. 
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                9.  
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                Is Jerusalem one huge Temple area only -- as Ezekiel seems to
                describe? Or is it a city without walls, and inhabited by children, as in Zec
                2:4; 8:4,5? 
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                10.  
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                Ezekiel envisions a large Temple area, but no real city (the
                people of Israel mostly living elsewhere). Likewise, this is what Nehemiah
                sought to build (Neh 4:22; 7:4; 12:29). It seems he understood Ezekiel's vision
                to be for his own day! 
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                11.  
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                Will the east gate be shut six days out of seven (Eze 46:1),
                or will it be always open (Isa 60:11; Rev 21:25)? 
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                12.  
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                Then there is the question: What is NOT described here? In
                this temple of Ezekiel's vision there is no lavish use of gold and silver. There
                are no High Priestly garments of glory and beauty. No golden lampstand. No table
                for Bread of the Presence... etc., etc...  
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                Splendid and holy as Ezra and Nehemiah's new Temple would be,
                its limitations and omissions would only emphasize to the minds of those Jews
                who saw it the continuing need for a new and better order, with a Messiah who
                would be both Prince and Priest, and who would offer one sacrifice that would be
                all-sufficient, and not merely temporary and typical. 
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                1. 
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                First of all (and this is fundamental!), are there any...
                ANY... NEW TESTAMENT prophecies about animal sacrifice in the Kingdom? If not,
                then the key point is this: Every such prophecy that even suggests animal
                sacrifice in the Kingdom was written BEFORE Christ's sacrifice. Thus it is
                susceptible to interpretation and reorientation... now... in light of that
                final, absolute, "be-all-and-end-all" sacrifice. In the future fulfillment,
                therefore, what is merely ritual will understandably give way to the
                reality! 
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                2.  
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                Christ is the end (goal, completion) of the Law (Rom 10:4; Gal
                3:24) because he is the antitype, or fulfillment (Mat 5:17; 3:15; Rom 8:4), of
                all the salvational aspects of the Mosaic Law -- including the various animal
                sacrifices (Heb 10:3-12; 9:11-15). 
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                3.  
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                Christ expressly said that his Memorial Feast was the (new)
                Passover (Luk 22:15). He kept his "Passover" with his disciples in the upper
                room, where there was no lamb -- because he was himself the Lamb (Joh 1:29,36;
                Act 8:32; 1Pe 1:19). So Paul exhorts NT believers to keep the "Passover" with
                Christ ("our passover lamb") and the "unleavened bread" of sincerity and truth
                (1Co 5:7,8). In summary, after Christ's crucifixion, Paul gives the OT Passover
                a NT spiritual application (the breaking of bread, memorializing believers'
                deliverance from the "Egypt" of sin and death). This "spiritual allegory" of the
                Passover, employed by Paul and other NT writers, becomes a pattern for viewing
                the other OT prophecies about various feasts and animal sacrifices in a NT
                context. 
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                4.  
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                Moreover, there are other examples of OT prophecies which we
                easily interpret in a "modern" fashion. Consider, for example... 
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                (a) 
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                Isa 2:4 / Mic 4:3 / Joel 3:10: Does anyone today actually
                suppose that these prophecies are literally about 20th (or 21st)-century swords
                and spears and plowshares and pruning hooks? No, of course not. For a "modern"
                interpretation, we readily substitute "tanks" and "missiles" and "tractors" and
                "harvesters". But if that is what the prophecy is about, why didn't Isaiah and
                Micah and Joel use such terms in the first place? Simply because their original
                audiences/readers would not have understood them. And so we (almost intuitively)
                learn to "modernize" certain OT language to align with our own changed and
                changing circumstances.  
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                Other examples... 
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                (b) 
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                Zec 14: A kingdom prophecy in a context that suggests actual
                animal sacrifice (v. 16: the feast of tabernacles). But are those really literal
                bells on literal horses (v 20)? And will most nations in the future be seriously
                concerned about plagues coming upon their camels and donkeys and mules (v 15)?
                Isn't some "allegorizing" required here? 
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                Perhaps the seven-day Feast of Tabernacles for all the
                nations, described in Zec 14, will resemble a grand and glorious and continuous
                "Bible school" of the Kingdom? One where the sacrifices offered to the Father
                will no longer be slain animals, but a prayerful and praise-filled participation
                in the "marriage supper of the Lamb"? 
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                (c)  
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                Mic 4:4: Will everyone be required or expected to have his or
                her own vine and fig tree in the Kingdom? How literally should we read this
                verse? 
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                (d) 
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                Amo 9:13: Literal treading out of grapes in the
                Kingdom? 
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                (e) 
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                Isa 52:1: Will uncircumcised immortal saints be excluded from
                Zion? (Or do we give "circumcised" and "uncircumcised" symbolic meanings here?
                And if so, then what else may legitimately be given symbolic
                meanings?) 
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                (f) 
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                Zec 9:10: Battle bows? Are these literal? 
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                The list could go on and on.... 
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